Binomial Distribution Calculator

Fixed number of tries, same chance each time, and the tries do not affect each other. Enter how many trials, the chance of success on one of them, and the number you are asking about, and this gives the exact probability plus every cumulative reading.

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What makes a question binomial

Four things have to be true, and it is worth checking all four rather than three:

The last two are where real situations break the model, and usually for the same reason: life has memory and the formula does not. A shooter who is tired by the ninth shot is not binomial. Neither is a machine that jams more often once it has jammed. That does not make the answer useless, but it does make it a starting point rather than a verdict.

The formula

P(X = k) = C(n, k) × pk × (1 − p)n − k

Read left to right, it says: pick which k of your n tries were the successful ones, multiply by the chance those all worked, then by the chance the rest all failed. The C(n, k) at the front is doing the counting, and it is the reason ten successes out of twenty is far more likely than twenty out of twenty.

Worked example

A basketball player who makes 80 percent of his free throws takes ten.

The most likely single outcome is exactly eight made, at 30.2%. But that is not what people notice. What they notice is the misses:

P(making at least 9 of 10) = 0.2684 + 0.1074 = 37.6%

Which means that 62.4% of the time, an 80 percent shooter misses two or more. Missing twice in ten is not a slump. It is the majority outcome, and it is what an eighty percent shooter looks like on a completely ordinary night.

The most useful thing this distribution does

People are reliably wrong about at least one, and always in the same direction.

Ten tries at a 10 percent chance each feels like it should be a certainty. It is not. The chance of failing all ten is 0.910 = 0.349, so the chance of at least one success is about 65 percent. Roughly one time in three you get nothing at all.

Tries at 10% eachChance of at least one success
541.0%
1065.1%
2087.8%
5099.5%

The trick worth keeping is that at least one is easiest to reach by calculating none and subtracting. That is one term instead of many, and it is how you do it in your head.

Binomial or hypergeometric

The two answer nearly the same question and differ on one point: whether you put things back.

Binomial assumes every trial is identical, which is true for coins and dice and free throws. Hypergeometric assumes a finite pool that shrinks as you draw, which is true for cards, shipments and audit samples. They share the same mean exactly, and the hypergeometric one is always the less variable.

The practical rule: if you are drawing from a pool and your sample is more than about 5 percent of it, use hypergeometric. Below that the two converge and either will do.

When a normal curve is close enough

For large n the binomial starts to look like a normal distribution, which is why so many textbooks reach for that approximation. The usual condition is that both np and n(1 − p) are at least 5.

It is a decent rule. At n = 20 and p = 0.5 the approximation lands within half a percent; at n = 200 it is within a twentieth of a percent. But it is worth being clear that the approximation exists to save arithmetic that nobody has to do by hand any more. This page computes the exact answer at any size, so treat the normal curve as a way of understanding the shape rather than as something you need.

If you do want the normal distribution itself, the normal distribution calculator handles it directly, and the combination calculator covers the C(n, k) term on its own.

Frequently asked questions

What is the binomial distribution?

It gives the probability of a given number of successes in a fixed number of independent tries, where each try has the same chance. Coin flips, free throws, and defect rates on an assembly line all fit, provided one attempt genuinely does not change the next.

What are the conditions for using it?

Four: a fixed number of trials, only two outcomes per trial, the same probability every time, and independence between trials. The last two are where real problems break the assumption, usually because the situation has memory that the maths does not.

When should I use hypergeometric instead?

When you are drawing from a finite pool without putting things back, so the odds shift as you go. Cards, shipments and name lists are hypergeometric. If your sample is under about 5 percent of the pool the two agree closely, and above that they do not.

What are the mean and variance?

The mean is n times p, and the variance is n times p times one minus p. The variance is largest when p is one half, which makes sense: a fair coin is the least predictable thing you can flip.

When can I use the normal approximation?

The usual rule is that both np and n(1 − p) should be at least 5, some texts say 10. At that point the shape is close enough that a normal curve with a continuity correction gets you within a percent or so. This page computes the exact answer regardless, so the approximation is a convenience rather than a necessity.

Why does at least one so often surprise people?

Because it is easier to work out the chance of none and subtract. With ten tries at 10 percent each, the chance of at least one success is not 100 percent, it is about 65 percent. The intuition that ten tries at one in ten is a certainty is the most common probability mistake there is.

Does a run of failures make success more likely next time?

No. Independence means exactly that: the trials have no memory and nothing is owed. A fair coin that has landed tails six times is still a fair coin. If a run genuinely does change the odds, then the situation was not binomial to begin with, which is the more interesting possibility.

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